I just got my results back for my first SPECIFIC herpes test, and I'm IgG positive for both strains, but IgM negative for both strains and I've never had an outbreak (cold sores or genital). The PA-C that I talked to today said that means I've been exposed to the virus, but I currently do not have it. What I'm confused on is, she told me that if I gave someone oral (who has HSV-2 genital), then I would only get HSV-1 oral. But the other PA-C I talked to last night says that these days either strain can cause the other (HSV-1 can cause genital and HSV-2 can cause oral). I know I've been exposed to HSV-1 through my ex (he had cold sores frequently and would accidentally kiss me/share food/drinks), but I don't know how I contracted HSV-2? Is that strictly through intercourse? I usually give oral before having sex with someone and I've never seen visible/open sores on anyone. The other thing I'm confused about is that the female PA said its highly unlikely I contracted HSV-2 from someone who wasn't showing symptoms but online I've read of asymptomatic shedding and that it's still possible?
There is someone that I've been having unprotected sex with someone for a couple months now and what are the chances that I passed on both to him? I don't know if he's ever gotten IgG testing for herpes before, but I don't want him to blame/hate me if he sees that his IgG values are positive but his IgM values are negative?