confused10

The relationship has not been well and there is a possibility that he was unfaithful..though if course he swears up and down this is not the case. I obviously had a culture rest since I was having an outbreak which came back positive. Just wondering if it's possible to spread if he has yet to have an outbreak and blood tests show nothing? I know I was not unfaithful and haven't been with anyone else for 16 years..I asked the dr if it was something that could have been dormant in my system for this many years and his answer was no this was definitely a first time outbreak. Just trying to wrap my head around how this is all happening

I have just recently been diagnosed with HSV2. I had a horrible outbreak about 4 days after having sex with my partner of 16 years. I have not slept with anyone else in this time frame. He on the other hand has been tested twice(blood) negative and has no symptoms. Is it possible that he slept with someone in the past few months and has yet to have an outbreak and still is testing negative but has passed it on to me? Now I am being pinned as the cheater knowing that I have not slept with anyone else..please help me understand?