I had my first OB about a month ago. I had about a day of pain shooting up the back of my legs followed by some swelling of the immediate area and one blister. I’ve been with the same partner for almost 7 years and never noticed anything that resembled a blister down there, so I assumed I’d knicked myself shaving and it got infected. I went to urgent care, laughed it off when they asked about herpes, gladly accepted my prescribed antibiotics for the “bacterial infection” and went on my way. The swelling went down and the blister burst within a week so I was pretty shocked when I got a call letting me know my swab tested positive for hsv2. I could not get an appt with my GYN for over a month so I’ve been reading as much as I can online. One thing that confused me: I read that the initial outbreak is usually the worst and generally occurs shortly after infection. I’ve also read it’s not uncommon for people to have their first OB years after contracting the infection. This seems contradictory. If the initial reaction to the infection was so mild I did not notice it, why did I suddenly have an OB years later? Shouldn’t my immune system have beaten it down by now? Or does it take a blantant OB to really get the antibodies going? My husband got the igg blood test and tested negative for hsv2 (yet he has hsv1...which was news to us) so obviously I picked this up a long, long time ago. I’m just trying to wrap my head around why I just had my first OB now. I just started a new job and have not been getting enough sleep. I get that. But I’ve faced worse stressors in the past 8 years. Any clarification would be greatly appreciated. Still a week until I see the doc.