rowanoak

Thanks, WCSD... that's what I thought. I don't know why the doctor told my H that it was otherwise (ie, "you're numbers indicate you've had it a long time").

I finally finally finally have a number and a test type from my husbands' recent diagnosis of HSV-1. IgG test index 3.48 From what I am reading, that's actually a fairly low positive - right? He told me his doctor said his value indicated a long standing infection/exposure. What is the general consensus here, guys..... do the numbers mean anything in terms of a correlation of the value to the general length of time having the virus, or is it totally random? What do you think?

Thank you for the helpful replies! And I apologize for the use of the term unclean, that was thoughtless of me. Is Unclear a better term? I do have to say my gut isn't feeling comfy with this, but I am trying VERY hard to not seem at all accusatory, I am trying to get him to obtain the test results and I did explain why, I want to assess my own odds of picking this up, which I'd prefer to avoid. He IS a very intelligent man, which is one reason this unsettles me - he's not being terribly smart at ALL (my opinion) in how he is handling this; uncharacteristically seems to not want to do the research and get all the answers... very not like him (he is a scientist as I am as well). I really CAN accept the HSV and a degree of risk I would get it, but I NEED to entirely believe things are 100% truthful to get on that page. So, now we wait....

I am trying to understand the situation surrounding my husbands’ sudden appearance of herpes blisters. We are both nearly 50, and we have been married 5 years. I was thoroughly tested for many STD’s about 7-8 years ago (before we got together) and appeared free of anything at that time (but I do not honestly recall if I was tested for HSV then). Husband was also tested for 'everything but' at that time. About 3 weeks ago – a day following intercourse – he showed me what looked like blisters on his penis. I do not know for certain if they were there when we did have evening intercourse the day before or not. I insisted he go to his doctor, which he did (after a week of prompting), and I went to mine. I asked to be fully tested again, and I was (though I do not know at the moment what precise tests were done, but they included tests for HSV 1 and 2 as I requested, and my cervix was swabbed). This testing was only a week after his blisters appeared, far as I know. I again showed up negative for everything, including Herpes Simplex 1 and 2. I do not get cold sores, by the way. However.. my husband tested positive. He showed up having Herpes Simplex 1, though I have never seen a cold sore on him. He now tells me he does get them. To his knowledge, his ex wife of a 20 year marriage does not have HSV. Anyway, here are my questions ~ 1) my husband tells me that his doctor claims that the test they gave him proves that he must have had Herpes for many years and not known. My understanding is that it is impossible for any blood test or culture to give an indication of how long ago the exposure occurred. Antibodies just indicate it's been there at least a 'few months', no more precise than that. Am I correct? 2) What are the chances that he really had has this for many years, with no outbreaks and without having passed it to me already (we have been together 7 years total)? If by some miracle I don't already have it, I would REALLY like to avoid obtaining it, too.... especially if it is 'recent'. Any advice? I have asked him to get a copy of the tests so I can see the numbers. I don't now how to talk about this without provoking a fight and .... I'm now afraid of sex with the person I married. Yikes. :(