Waffle

If you are having outbreaks are you also having sores appear? It's possible you have a different kind of infection. I hear that testing extremely high on the Igg is a sign of high immunity to the disease, and that you are likely not infected. 8 or higher seems to be the range for antibodies being resent due to a high resistance to it, not an actual infection. I read this online though not sure how reliable that is. It still baffles me as to how little doctors and obgyns know about this and how much run around seems to happen.

I still have no sores or lesions from this 'outbreak' and nothing changed on valtrax. Never had sores or blisters or anything but I may be asymptomatic or not yet had an OB, and my other pain could be unrelated. My gyn had me back in for more extensive testing. She said they were going to do more focused tests and try as many of them as possible. It's been over 2 weeks and still haven't heard back. Swab was likely negative due to a lack of sores, blood test still doesn't make sense to me but I'm just waiting and hoping.

IVe been taking Valtrax for almost 10 days now and it made my symptoms worse. This and my one partner being negative are throwing me off. I heard swabs were pretty unreliable as well.

I’ve heard a lot of people reccommend this for accuracy, am going to inquire with my gynecologist about having one done.

I tested at 4.81 for type 2, I hear that is not likely to be a false positive. However my only sexual partner is negative for both types and I have no sores or blisters to accompany the pain that I can see. I’m thinking the recent negative culture is misleading based on what you said, since the blood test was igg. My doctor is giving me false hope that it’s a likely false positive and I want to hope it is too but with my luck...

What are the chances that this is a false positive? Does this just mean that the infection is not recent but been there for a while so a culture is showing as negative? Been in pain for a while and have supposedly been having an OB for ten months, wouldn’t a culture come back as positive in this case?

Yea working on that now. I am on BC, pain started on the pill, went off it for a few weeks it was the same, switched to the ring, all low hormonal, I should try not using it at all for a bit.

The pain was unbearable at times but we found ways to work around it, it just sucked generally. Having a high pain tolerance may have helped but it frequently got to the point where it felt like knives on my insides.

The most I’d done previously Is give a hand job but it never involved anything touching my own genitals. Is it possible for someone to carry the disease through the skin without contracting it themselves, like have hsv 1 infected saliva on their fingers from another person and transfer it to genitals? I may be reaching but nothing has made sense. I have also had general vaginal pain for this nine months that came and went as burning or painful urination but it wasn’t intense enough for me to feel unless using a tampon or during sex. The infected area is only up inside me apparently so I can’t actually see if there are sores. I had a blood antibody test done for both types and was only positive for type 2. My partner came back negative for both. Due to my doctor trying to treat me for UTIs and yeast infections since it started this pain has lasted a very long time. I want to believe it could be a false positive but my symptoms seem to be in line with an outbreak generally from what I’ve read. A discouraging aspect is that I’ve been taking the initial dose of valcyclovir to treat it and the burning has only gotten worse since I started, so it may be that it was actually a false positive or I’m not reacting to treatment. My partner also not contracting type 2 after multiple unprotected sexual and oral encounters while I’ve have this ‘outbreak’ might support that idea too.

I will do that thanks!

I have seen his results for hsv 2, negative. Results are <0.90. I tested around 4.81. Is it common to test falsely negative or positive?

I recently found out that this searing pain I’ve had during sex for the last ten months was not a slew of UTIs, yeast infections or potential vulvodynia, but HSV 2 that my gynecologist failed to test me for, despite asking to be tested for all major stds. The odd thing is that I’ve been with the same guy who took my virginity years ago and have never been in sexual contact with another person aside from kissing and some casual massaging from previous relationships. My partner has tested negative for HSV 2 and on top of that has been having unprotected sex with me for the duration of this outbreak and has not contracted it. I tested negative for HSV 1 and he is waiting on test results for this type. The only thing that seems to explain this situation from what I have read is that he is likely positive for type 1 and experiencing asymptomatic shedding through which I contracted type 2 during oral sexual contact. This however also wouldn’t explain how I have not contracted type 1 from kissing him. And if he comes back negative for both types I will be even more at a loss for answers. Are there any other potential ways that I could have contracted type 2 if no one but him has come into contact with me sexually and I only experienced this outbreak after over a year of being sexually active with him? This situation is causing so much doubt and blame to be pointed my way and it seems unfair that I should have to suffer as the damaged and ‘unclean’ member of this relationship when he is the only logical source of this disease. Is it at all possible for someone who has type 2 and has never had an outbreak to test negative considering their body hasn’t yet built up antibodies to the disease? I have so little answers and the situation is putting such a strain on my personal life. Any insight would be very much appreciated.